Thursday, July 9, 2009

Genealogies in the bible.

ExPatMatt brings up some good questions about genealogies in the bible. The purpose of the genealogies was not chronologically. The quickest, fastest summary I have found that proves this point can be found here.

1. Abridgement and omission of unimportant names is the pattern in the genealogies of the Bible. There are numerous examples of this observation. One prime example is the omissions in the genealogies of Jesus Christ. In Matthew 1:8 Ahaziah (2 Kings 8:25), Joash (2 Kings 7:1), and Amaziah (2 Kings 23:34; 1 Chronicles 3:16) are dropped between Joram and Ozias (or Uzziah). In Matthew 1:1 the entire genealogy of Jesus is summed up in two steps, "Jesus Christ the son of David, the son of Abraham."


The genealogies seem to be more concerned with only the names of important people and NOT relaying a strict chronological timeline.

The genealogy in Exodus 6:16-25 makes Moses the great-grandson of Levi though 430 years intervened (Exodus 12:40). It is, therefore, evident that many names have been omitted from Moses' genealogy.


If one were to take the genealogies 'literal' then Moses would be a 430 year old great grandson.

3. "Father," "Son," and "begot" were used in a broad sense. Several Biblical passages contain ancestral titles used in a broad sense. We know from earlier discussion that several names have been omitted in Matthew 1:8 after Joram. Therefore, Joram was actually the great-great grandfather of Uzziah. It is obvious that the "father" used in verse 8 between Joram and Uzziah means "ancestor" instead of its conventional meaning. In 1 Chronicles 1:36 the Hebrew text includes seven names after "the sons of Eliphaz," making it appear that all the seven named are sons. Actually one of the names, Timna, was that of a concubine, not a son. Only the New International Version translates clearly that Timna was Eliphaz's concubine, as recorded also in Genesis 36:11-12, and the other six are sons.

Matthew 1:1 reads, "Jesus Christ the son of David, the son of Abraham." "Son" here obviously means descendant. Therefore, the biblical writers and translators seem to use the words "father" and "son" freely to mean "ancestor" or "descendant", and sometimes the persons are not closely related.

The regular formula in the genealogies in Genesis 5 and 10 is "A lived _ years and begat B, and A lived after he begat B _ years and begat sons and daughters. And B lived _ years and begat C...." (KJV). The Hebrew word "begat" is sometimes used for succeeding generations. Zilpah is said to have "born to" Jacob her great-grandchildren (Genesis 46:18 NIV) and Bilhah her grandchildren (Genesis 46:25). Canaan is recorded to have begotten whole nations (Genesis 10: 15-18).

Furthermore, if the dates are true, Adam was contemporary with every generation until the Flood, except Noah. Methuselah died in the year of the Flood. Shem survived Abraham for 35 years; Salah 3 years; and Eber, 64 years. For 58 years Noah was the contemporary of Abraham, and Shem actually survived Abraham for 35 years. Such conclusions are contrary to the spirit of the record that presupposed a much longer gap between Noah and Abraham.


Here we have the source of what usually causes confusion in reading the bible, the language difference. In Gen 5 and 11 they both use the word begat to link one generation to the next. In Ex 6:20 and Num 26:59, this same word links Amram and his wife Jochebed to Moses even though there are many generations in between them. These verses quite clearly show that the word beget can be validly used in the way that is shown above, the word for beget is the hebrew word "yalad." The translations for yalad are as follows:

1) to bear, bring forth, beget, gender, travail

a) (Qal)

1) to bear, bring forth

a) of child birth

b) of distress (simile)

c) of wicked (behaviour)

2) to beget

b) (Niphal) to be born

c) (Piel)

1) to cause or help to bring forth

2) to assist or tend as a midwife

3) midwife (participle)

d) (Pual) to be born

e) (Hiphil)

1) to beget (a child)

2) to bear (fig. - of wicked bringing forth iniquity)

f) (Hophal) day of birth, birthday (infinitive)

g) (Hithpael) to declare one's birth (pedigree)


It is also very important to note that flutes assertion found here:

So you don't need to interpret the earth's age YEC-style. You just need to count the years in the chronologies backwards, then BINGO!

is an ignorant one, since the genealogies only go up to Adam, but according to the old earth view, the earth was created billions of years before Adam was created, thus using the genealogies to interpret the earths age is a YEC interpretation.

I would also like to note that I am not in anyway shape or form trying to assert that one view is more correct than the other view, but that both views are adequately supported by biblical evidence and instead of arguing which one is right and which one is wrong, Christians need to understand that doing so is pointless. In retrospect I see that this post is extremely relevant here.

1 Timothy 1:3-7

3 As I urged you when I went into Macedonia—remain in Ephesus that you may charge some that they teach no other doctrine, 4 nor give heed to fables and endless genealogies, which cause disputes rather than godly edification which is in faith. 5 Now the purpose of the commandment is love from a pure heart, from a good conscience, and from sincere faith, 6 from which some, having strayed, have turned aside to idle talk, 7 desiring to be teachers of the law, understanding neither what they say nor the things which they affirm


Pauls words seem extremely relevant in this situation, as old earth/young earth interpretations of these genealogies are causing disputers rather than Godly edification.

Update: Flute makes an irrelevant point.

You were the one who brought up YEC. I was saying you don't need that to calculate the date of the flood.
I want to make this clear; I was not talking about the age of the Earth. I was talking about the date of the mythical flood.


I was certainly incorrect saying that flute was talking about the age of the earth, however he still has no point since the genealogies cannot be used for chronological purposes so it can't even be used to date the flood!

27 comments:

Flute said...
This comment has been removed by a blog administrator.
Theological Discourse said...

Sorry flute, you did not concede the point in the other thread and until you do so, per the rules, your posts will be deleted.

Froggie said...
This comment has been removed by a blog administrator.
Kerri Love said...

So why do you think YEC are against the possibility of gaps in the genealogies? You seem to present some pretty convincing evidence for this and I'm curious about why they don't see that. I always found that to be strange since they are reading into something that isn't there. I guess that's something I should be asking them... they never answering me though :P

Theological Discourse said...

Flute, the point you need to concede can be found in this thread.

http://taooftruthinfighting.blogspot.com/2009/06/god-father.html

Glen20 said...

TD, you pointed out that the genealogies were contradictory and said to Flute: "Now concede the point per rule #4 unless you have anything to refute what I said."
Later you said that there was "no doubt" that Flute's interpretation was valid.
So what does Flute need to concede?

Theological Discourse said...

Yes it is a valid interpretation but that is not what flute was arguing. He was trying to tell me I don't believe in the bible because I was not adding up chronologies, so it wasn't about what was valid or not, it was about me not believing in a YEC interpretation of the bible timeline.

Kerri Love said...

This would be a separate argument, the "True Christian" argument. I've asked about that in other places and no one likes to answer my questions... not that I blame them.

Theological Discourse said...


This would be a separate argument, the "True Christian" argument. I've asked about that in other places and no one likes to answer my questions... not that I blame them.

Well I don't think its really about true christian and non true christian, the differences between a catholic, calvanist, methodist, baptist etc. are insignificant, there is no way to tell who among them are "True Christians," or if a "True Christian" even exists. I think it can be summed up by easily asking, are you following Christ or not? and then look at their fruits and the evidence they provide. If they assert something that is contrary to Christ, like if they say 'adultry is condoned in the bible' I highly doubt that one can provide a shred of evidence for that assertion, I don't think it is about True Christian or non true Christian, I think it is about legitimately following Christ. Christ warned people about following false prophets, and wolves in sheeps clothing, which seems to warn against illegitimate interpreters of His message.

Kerri Love said...

Some would argue you on that but I tend to agree... one question I have is if I find the story of creation to be figurative or parable and I find evolution could be valid could I be a Christian?

Theological Discourse said...


Some would argue you on that but I tend to agree... one question I have is if I find the story of creation to be figurative or parable and I find evolution could be valid could I be a Christian?

I honestly don't know enough about evolution to give you a good answer on that one. I am quite ignorant in the subject.

Kerri Love said...

I can simplify the question. If I believed Creation was figurative and not literal could I still be a Christian. Maybe I've just been around fundamental Christians to much for my own good ;)

Theological Discourse said...


I can simplify the question. If I believed Creation was figurative and not literal could I still be a Christian. Maybe I've just been around fundamental Christians to much for my own good ;)

Well there are certainly some parts of creation that can be be validly translated to be figurative, but figurative to what? I simply don't know. My honest answer regarding the subject is I don't know.

Kerri Love said...

I think that's a valid answer because it actually is honest. I've been told that if I believe something is figurative then the whole "book" would become invalid. I think this is an argument of logic but I'm not all that good at recognizing such things. I'm emotional not logical but I'm trying to learn the differnce.

Glen20 said...

What's great about holy books is that you can interpret them just about any way - to support just about any argument. (Just see this blog!)
Of course, decreases its value as an authority but what you gonna do?

Theological Discourse said...


What's great about holy books is that you can interpret them just about any way - to support just about any argument. (Just see this blog!)

No, actually you cannot, you can only interpret them in a certain number of ways, not any way you want to. I guess you have difficulty grasping the difference between a valid interpretation and any interpretation. Multiple interpretations decreases its value as an authority? really? care to explain that line of reasoning?

Kerri Love said...

I think it would be more accurate to say that people can twist it to make it appear to support them and most people don't know the difference and would rather follow blindly then actually try to understand it themselves.

Glen20 said...

"care to explain that line of reasoning?"

Sure. If, for example, a text claimed that X=1 in a way that could be interpreted as X=1 and X=2 or X=3 then the text would no longer be an authority on the value of X.

Now, if the Bible makes claims, moral or scientific, that can be interpreted in various different ways, then it can not be the authority on said claims.

Theological Discourse said...


Sure. If, for example, a text claimed that X=1 in a way that could be interpreted as X=1 and X=2 or X=3 then the text would no longer be an authority on the value of X.

First off, that is a non sequitur, how can it not be an authority? how did you come to that conclusion? That is like saying Emanuel Stewart cannot be an authority on boxing because what he said could be interpreted differently. That simply does not follow. If we go by your logic Bruce Lee cannot obviously be an authority on fighting since what he said can be interpreted different ways.


Now, if the Bible makes claims, moral or scientific, that can be interpreted in various different ways, then it can not be the authority on said claims.

How so? If Emanuel stewart wrote a book on how a jab works, and what he said can be interpreted in different ways does that some how make him not an authority on the jab? it is a non sequitur, someones or somethings authority is not determined on if what is says can be interpreted, by that logic bruce lee is not an authority on fighting since what he said can be interpreted different ways.

Theological Discourse said...


I think it would be more accurate to say that people can twist it to make it appear to support them and most people don't know the difference and would rather follow blindly then actually try to understand it themselves.

Bingo.

Glen20 said...

Ah, we misunderstand each other. I was using this meaning of authority: "a conclusive statement or set of statements"

Theological Discourse said...


Ah, we misunderstand each other. I was using this meaning of authority: "a conclusive statement or set of statements"

well that depends on the subject at hand, there are some things (flood,creation, end times etc) that the bible simply does not have enough information on, but other things(salvation, Jesus ressurection, historical people, morality etc.) it is quite clear and conclusive. There is certainly nothing with the former as God does not have a problem with us figuring out things for ourselves

Glen20 said...

...but other things(salvation, Jesus ressurection, historical people, morality etc.) it is quite clear and conclusive.

I think it's quite ambiguous on the subject of salvation.
People ask Jesus what they must do to be saved and he gives them all kinds of answers.
Grace, belief, obeying the law, selling everything and giving the money to the poor, say the right things, be chosen, not be rich, hate your own life, eat Jesus' body and blood...
Hardly clear.

Theological Discourse said...



I think it's quite ambiguous on the subject of salvation.
People ask Jesus what they must do to be saved and he gives them all kinds of answers.
Grace, belief, obeying the law, selling everything and giving the money to the poor, say the right things, be chosen, not be rich, hate your own life, eat Jesus' body and blood...
Hardly clear.

If you remember we were talking about the bible, not 'what people ask.' The bible it is quite clear about salvation.

Glen20 said...

Sorry, I mean - "People ask Jesus in the Bible what they must do to be saved and he gives them all kinds of answers"

All those answers are in the Bible.

Theological Discourse said...


Sorry, I mean - "People ask Jesus in the Bible what they must do to be saved and he gives them all kinds of answers"

All those answers are in the Bible.

Are any of those answers contradictory? are you certain it cannot be all of those answers? remember what the original point was? valid interpretation.

Kerri Love said...

I've heard some argue about the time of Jesus birth because on book says one leader was in power but the other book says a different leader was in power... I'm to lazy to look up the specifics since I'm pretty sure someone here knows what I'm talking about.. it's Monday... I'll look it up if someone asks.